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What is the volumetric efficiency of a stock ls1?

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Old Sep 23, 2008 | 07:58 PM
  #21  
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Originally Posted by Jessica
On an optimized setup the pressure is lower in the cylinder up until very close to IVC, which is well after BDC. Intertia is a small role but it doesn't cause 90° of cylinder filling after BDC by itself, at least not at the mass of the atmosphere on our planet. What you are saying is that the force exerted on the air colum from the 180° the piston travels down the bore causes enough inertia to extend that up to and beyond 50% as far... (90°), that's not how the world works.
So if pressure difference is the only motivator worth considering, and the pressure in the cylinder doesn't come up to the pressure in the port until IVC, then VE is limited to the % of total cylinder volume that is available in the cylinder at IVC.

That's not how the world works either.

Also, show us some arithmetic verifying that the kinetic energy of the inflowing air is not sufficient to compress air that is already in the cylinder.
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Old Sep 23, 2008 | 10:56 PM
  #22  
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Originally Posted by The Dark Side of Wil
This may start a good argument:

No, you don't.

That depends on whether you use atmospheric air density or manifold as a basis for comparison. I think the majority of people in this thread think, and are speaking, about VE in relation to atmospheric.
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Old Sep 25, 2008 | 07:33 AM
  #23  
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Volumetric efficiency is simply the amount of air being pushed through your motor divided by the displacement and then multiplyed by 100 to give you a percentage. So if you are forcing more air/fuel through the same amount of cubic inches.....???????
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Old Sep 25, 2008 | 07:34 AM
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Oh and I still need the volumetric effciency over the whole rev rang.
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Old Oct 2, 2008 | 12:08 PM
  #25  
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Default VE over rev range

Here is some VE information on my 402 that I had dynoed on a superflow 902 a few weeks ago.

ls2-402 dyno.pdf
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Old Oct 3, 2008 | 11:29 PM
  #26  
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The 402 graph gives a good look at what a VE curve will look like. Remember ve is max at peak torque then diminishes with rpm always, you will never see a larger VE number after peak torque. Also a crude way to get an idea is to use a dyno graph of a sock engine, using the fact that it takes approximately 1 lb/min of air to make 10 hp you could approxiate the airflow over the rpm range. Also 0.069 x CFM = lb/min and (lb/min)/0.069=CFM So using a stock dyno chart you could calculate a very rough approximate airflow versus rpm because dynos aren't the most accurate measuring device. Then take these questimates and divide by the calculated theoretical airflow at the same rpm's at 100%VE then times that by a 100 to give you a percentage. Like I said this is rough but it is a way.
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Old Oct 4, 2008 | 05:23 PM
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Stock engines, normally aspirated, probably hit VE in the 80% range at their best. No way is a stock NA engine hitting high 90s or over 100 VE.
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Old Oct 6, 2008 | 03:44 PM
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I agree....97% seems a little high for stock.
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my current setup (sig) sees 115 at peak tq and then down to 112.

I did a SD tune on a 00' z28 with a lid, ls6 intake, and no muffler that has peak tq at 96 and then down to 95

a stock 00' camaro has a ve map just like that, peak 95

a stock 02' camaro peaks at 99 and then drops to 89

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